AIRPORT ENGINEERING

 

Airport Engineering

 

Airport Engineering Objective Questions and Answers – Set 01

 


Q1. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is

(A) 60 m
(B) 120 m
(C) 180 m
(D) 240 m

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 180 m


Q2. Wing loading of an aircraft is

(A) Load of the wings
(B) Gross total weight of the aircraft/ load of the wings
(C) Gross total weight of the aircraft/ wing area
(D) Gross total weight of the aircraft/total available H.P of engines

Show Answer

Answer: (C) Gross total weight of the aircraft/ wing area


Q3. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than

(A) 4.8 kmph
(B) 6.4 kmph
(C) 8.0 kmph
(D) 9.6 kmph

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 6.4 kmph


Q4. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are

(A) 3 m and 30 m
(B) 4.2 m and 30 m
(C) 4.2 m and 50 m
(D) 3 m and 45 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 4.2 m and 30 m


Q5. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the

(A) Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building
(B) Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
(C) Overall apron area required is more
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (B) Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building


Q6. For the proposed air port, the survey project provides

(A) Master plan
(B) Topographic plan
(C) Grading plan
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q7. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be

(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 44
(D) 68

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 36


Q8. The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots in the direction of the aircraft flying at a ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed of the aircraft, is

(A) 775 knots
(B) 75 knots
(C) 850 knots
(D) 675 knots

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 675 knots


Q9. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be

(A) 1 aircraft per hour
(B) 2 aircrafts per hour
(C) 4 aircrafts per hour
(D) 16 aircrafts per hour

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 4 aircrafts per hour


Q10. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be

(A) 2845 m
(B) 2910 m
(C) 3030 m
(D) 3130 m

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 3030 m


Q11. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is

(A) Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
(B) Less than the maximum structural landing weight
(C) More than the maximum structural landing weight
(D) Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload

Show Answer

Answer: (C) More than the maximum structural landing weight


Q12. The strength of winds is measured with the help of

(A) Beaufort scale
(B) Wind indicator
(C) Barometers
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Beaufort scale


Q13. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of

(A) 0.1 %
(B) 0.2 %
(C) 0.3 %
(D) 0.4 %

Show Answer

Answer: (A) 0.1 %


Q14. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends
(B) Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
(C) The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q15. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be

(A) 78 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 450 m

Show Answer

Answer: Option C

 

 

Civil Airport Engineering MCQ Test – Set 02

 

Q1. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are

(A) Yellow
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Red

Show Answer

Answer: (B) White


Q2. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be

(A) 1500 m and 600 m
(B) 2100 m and 750 m
(C) 1500 m and 750 m
(D) 2100 m and 600 m

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 2100 m and 600 m


Q3. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
(B) Radius of control area is 160 km
(C) Radius of control zone is 40 km
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q4. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be

(A) 2500 m
(B) 2600 m
(C) 2700 m
(D) 2800 m

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 2700 m


Q5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
(B) Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
(C) The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q6. For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is

(A) 40 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 75 %

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 60 %


Q7. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?

(A) Apron
(B) Hanger
(C) Terminal building
(D) Holding apron

Show Answer

Answer: (B) Hanger


Q8. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:

(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A


Q9. According to the International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.) the strength of runway pavements, have been coded by

(A) Seven English alphabets
(B) Last Seven English alphabets
(C) First Seven English alphabets
(D) First seven numbers

Show Answer

Answer: (D) First seven numbers


Q10. The minimum width of clearway is

(A) 50 m
(B) 100 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 250 m

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 150 m


Q11. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of – 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 meters, the length of the transition curve, is

(A) 150 m
(B) 140 m
(C) 160 m
(D) 175 m

Show Answer

Answer:(A) 150 m


Q12. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?

(A) Alligator cracking
(B) Mud pumping
(C) Warping cracks
(D) Shrinkage cracks

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Alligator cracking


Q13. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be

(A) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
(B) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
(C) 450 kmph and 450 kmph
(D) 500 kmph and 500 kmph

Show Answer

Answer: (A) 450 kmph and 500 kmph


Q14. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.

(A) 0.10 %
(B) 0.26 %
(C) 0.43 %
(D) 0.65 %

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 0.26 %


Q15. For night landing, the thresholds are lighted

(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) White
(D) Yellow

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Green

 

 

 Airport Engineering Civil Engineering Questions and Answers – Set 03

 

 

Q1. The size of landing area for multi engine helicopters operating under 1 FR conditions is

(A) 22.5 m × 22.5 m
(B) 30 m × 30 m
(C) 22.5 m × 30 m
(D) 60 m × 120 m

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 60 m × 120 m


Q2. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding

(A) 10°
(B) 20°
(C) 30°
(D) 40°

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 30°


Q3. Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 1 in 20


Q4. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be

(A) 1 : 5
(B) 1 : 7
(C) 1 : 10
(D) 1 : 12

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 1 : 7


Q5. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length

1.      The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.

2.      The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.

3.      The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient.
Of these statements

(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Show Answer

Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct


Q6. Speed of

(A) Sound at 0°C is 1190 kmph
(B) Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature
(C) Sound at 0°C is called one Mach
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q7. Castor angle is defined as the angle

(A) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
(B) Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
(C) Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
(D) Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear


Q8. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(A) Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft
(B) Blast pads are used over cohesion-less soils to resist erosion due to tremendous speed of the jet blast
(C) Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer:(D) None of these


Q9. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of

(A) A 1
(B) B 2
(C) B 3
(D) G 7

Show Answer

Answer: (A) A 1


Q10. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:

(A) Equal to empty operating weight
(B) Equal to maximum landing weight
(C) Less than empty operating weight
(D) Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

Show Answer

Answer: (D) Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load


Q11. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are

(A) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
(B) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
(C) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
(D) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0

Show Answer

Answer: (A) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5


Q12. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than

(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 35 %

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 35 %


Q13. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is

(A) 32°C
(B) 35.5°C
(C) 48°C
(D) 25°C

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 48°C


Q14. The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is

(A) Atmosphere pressure
(B) Air density
(C) Reduced level
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above

 

 

Airport Engineering Online Test Questions with Answers – Set 04

 

 

Q1. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is

(A) 150 m
(B) 300 m
(C) 600 m
(D) 750 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 300 m


Q2. The coordinates of the ends of a runway are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The co-ordinates of another runway are (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-ordinates of the A.R.P. are

(A) (6500, 6000)
(B) (5800, 5200)
(C) (61500, 5600)
(D) (8000, 7000)

Show Answer

Answer: (C) (61500, 5600)


Q3. Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 1 in 20


Q4. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with

(A) Asphaltic concrete
(B) Rubberised tar concrete
(C) Plain concrete
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q5. The fuse large includes

(A) Passengers chamber
(B) Pilot’s cabin
(C) Tail of aircraft
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q6. Speed of

(A) Sound at 0°C is 1190 kmph
(B) Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature
(C) Sound at 0°C is called one Mach
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q7. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of

(A) 3 m from runway end
(B) 6 m from runway end
(C) 10 m from runway end
(D) 15 m from runway end

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 6 m from runway end


Q8. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on

(A) Sea level elevation
(B) Standard sea level temperature (15°C)
(C) Effective gradient percentage
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q9. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of

(A) A 1
(B) B 2
(C) B 3
(D) G 7

Show Answer

Answer: (A) A 1


Q10. The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is

(A) 2500 m
(B) 3725 m
(C) 3000 m
(D) 3250 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 3725 m


Q11. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and

(A) End of the runway
(B) End of stop-way
(C) Point where air craft becomes air borne
(D) Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m

Show Answer

Answer: (A) End of the runway


Q12. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than

(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 35 %

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 35 %


Q13. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon

(A) Weather conditions and navigational aids available
(B) Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
(C) Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
(D) Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.

Show Answer

Answer: (D) Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.


Q14. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the net designed length of the runway is

(A) 2716 m
(B) 2816 m
(C) 2916 m
(D) 3016 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 2816 m


Q15. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?

1.      Normal maximum temperature

2.      Airport elevation

3.      Maximum landing weight

4.      Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions on Airport Engineering – Set 05

 

 

Q1. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) The centre line of the approach area coincides with that of the runway
(B) Approach areas are measured in horizontal surfaces
(C) Obstruction clearance surface and approach surface are same
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q2. According to the International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by

(A) Seven English alphabets
(B) Last Seven English alphabets
(C) First Seven English alphabets
(D) First seven natural numbers

Show Answer

Answer:(C) First Seven English alphabets


Q3. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(A) L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold
(B) L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold
(C) Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway
(D) Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side

Show Answer

Answer: (D) Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side


Q4. According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runways are painted white and on taxiways

(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Green

Show Answer

Answer: (C) Yellow


Q5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection
(B) The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
(C) According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q6. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are

(A) Zero
(B) 300
(C) 3000
(D) Unrestricted

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 300


Q7. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be

(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 5
(C) 1 : 8
(D) 1 : 40

Show Answer

Answer:(C) 1 : 8


Q8. The runway orientation is made so that landing and takeoff are

(A) Against the wind direction
(B) Along the wind direction
(C) Perpendicular to wind direction
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Against the wind direction


Q9. Effective length of a runway is the distance between

(A) Ends of the runway
(B) Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway
(C) Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway
(D) Ends of the clear way on either side

Show Answer

Answer: (B) Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway


Q10. If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than

(A) 145 m
(B) 152.5 m
(C) 162.5 m
(D) 172.5 m

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 172.5 m


Q11. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept

(A) 1 in 4
(B) 1 in 5
(C) 1 in 6
(D) 1 in 7

Show Answer

Answer:(D) 1 in 7


Q12. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of

1.      Runway orientation

2.      Estimating the runway capacity

3.      Geometric design of holding apron of these statements

(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 alone is correct

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 1 alone is correct


Q13. The height of the pilot’s eye above the runway surface is assumed

(A) 1 m
(B) 3 m
(C) 4 m
(D) 5 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 3 m


Q14. The depressions and undulations in the pavement, are caused due to

(A) Improper compaction of sub-grade
(B) Impact of heavy wheel loads
(C) Punching effect
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q15. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is

(A) 2360 m
(B) 2460 m
(C) 2560 m
(D) 2660 m

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 2560 m

 

 

Airport Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers – Set 06

 

 

Q1. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(A) In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft
(B) In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically
(C) In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer: (C) In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail


Q2. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than

(A) 20 m
(B) 30 m
(C) 45 m
(D) 51 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 30 m


Q3. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point
(B) The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point
(C) The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q4. The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.

(A) 3 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 5 %
(D) 7 %

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 7 %


Q5. The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by

(A) Main gears
(B) Nose wheel
(C) Tail wheel
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Main gears


Q6. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
(B) Rubberized tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
(C) Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer: (D) All the above


Q7. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed

(A) 15 kmph
(B) 25 kmph
(C) 35 kmph
(D) 45 kmph

Show Answer

Answer:(C) 35 kmph


Q8. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading
(B) Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)

Show Answer

Answer: (D) Both (a) and (b)


Q9. For Class ‘A’ Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is

(A) 25 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 100 m

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 100 m


Q10. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require

(A) Only clearway
(B) Only stop way
(C) Either a clearway or a stop-way
(D) Either a clearway or a stop-way or both

Show Answer

Answer: (D) Either a clearway or a stop-way or both


Q11. The threshold markings are

(A) 4 m wide
(B) 1 m clear space between adjacent
(C) Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
(D) All the above

Show Answer

Answer:(D) All the abov


Q12. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards

(A) 1 in 20
(B) 1 in 30
(C) 1 in 40
(D) 1 in 50

Show Answer

Answer: (D) 1 in 50


Q13. Beaufort scale is used to determine

(A) Strength of winds
(B) Direction of winds
(C) Height of air-crafts
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Strength of winds


Q14. The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, is limited to

(A) 20°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°

Show Answer

Answer:(D) 60°


Q15. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width.
Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.
Select your answer based on coding system given below

(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Show Answer

Answer: (C) A is true but R is false

 

Airport Engineering Objective questions – Set 07

 

 

Q1. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is

(A) 12.30 m
(B) 11.30 m
(C) 10.30 m
(D) 9.30 m

Show Answer

Answer: (A) 12.30 m


Q2. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:

(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Show Answer

Answer: (A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A


Q3. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 kmph. Its speed is known as

(A) Subsonic
(B) Sonic
(C) Super-sonic
(D) Mach

Show Answer

Answer: (B) Sonic


Q4. Pick up the component not applicable to aeroplanes

(A) Wings
(B) Engines
(C) Air screw
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer: (D) None of these


Q5. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is

(A) N 70° W
(B) 290°
(C) 29°
(D) W 20° N

Show Answer

Answer: (C) 29°


Q6. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of

(A) Control tower
(B) Highest point of the landing area
(C) Lowest point of the landing area
(D) None of these

Show Answer

Answer: (B) Highest point of the landing area


Q7. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground, is called cruising speed
(B) The speed of the aircraft relative to wind, is called air speed
(C) When wind is blowing the direction of the flight, air speed is less than cruising speed
(D) All the above

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Answer:(D) All the above


Q8. Pick up the correct abbreviation from the following:

(A) L.M.M. (low powered middle marker)
(B) V.H.F. (very high frequency)
(C) L.O.M. (low powered outer marker)
(D) All the above

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Answer: (D) All the above


Q9. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and takeoff area should be

(A) 2.5 m
(B) 5.0 m
(C) 7.5 m
(D) 10.0 m

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Answer: (C) 7.5 m


Q10. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of

(A) Longest line on wind rose diagram
(B) Shortest line on the wind rose diagram
(C) Line clear of wind rose diagram
(D) None of these

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Answer: (A) Longest line on wind rose diagram


Q11. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces
(B) The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose
(C) The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction
(D) All the above

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Answer: (D) All the above


Q12. For the taxiways, the following statement is true

(A) The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%
(B) The permissible rate of change of grade is 1%
(C) The permissible transverse grade is 1.5%
(D) All the above

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Answer: (D) All the above


Q13. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.
(B) The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
(C) The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
(D) All the above

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Answer: (D) All the above


Q14. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometers from runway end will be

(A) 1500 m
(B) 1200 m
(C) 1000 m
(D) 800 m

Show Answer

Answer: (B) 1200 m

 

 

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